Home » Neuromuscular Junction: Self-Quiz Answers

Neuromuscular Junction: Self-Quiz Answers

Chapter 1 great review of the basic anatomical areas of the body 1. Metabolism, anabolism, catabolism 2. ICF, ECF 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. Parasagittal 7. D, effectors 8. A, differentiation 9. C, hypogastric 10. C, 3 11. Axillary-armpit, inguinal-groin, cervical-neck, cranial-skull, oral-mouth, brachial-arm, orbital-eye, gluteal-buttock, buccal-cheek, cixal-hip 12. 1 superior, 12 superficial, 1superior and 6 lateral, 6 lateral, 4 posterior, 8 ipsilateral, 5 medial, 4 anterior, 2 inferior, 10 proximal 13. pericardial cavity, 1 cranial cavity, 3 thoracic cavity, 6 abdominal cavity, 5 pleural cavity, 7 pelvic cavity, 2 vertebral cavity 14. 6, 1, 11, 5, 10, 8, 7, 9, 4, 3, 2 Chapter 2 great review of all my chem. classes 1. Mass number 18 and 10 neutrorns = atomic number of 8 2. Solid, liquid, gas 3. Monosaccharides, amino acids 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. C6H12O6 and CH4 are considered compounds 8. Glucose + fructose = sucrose is a dehydration synthesis reaction 9. Proteins do not store energy 10. Lipids are triglycerides, steroids, and eicosanoids 11. E, salt 2. A, 1,2,3,and 4 13. E monosaccharide 14. 1, 2, 1, 4, 3 15. 11,1,8,3,7,4,5,9,10,12,6,2 Chapter 3 One of my favorite classes in undergrad was Genetics, already studied this, very interesting still, though, almost thought about getting into forensics after taking this class 1. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus 2. Apoptosis=pre-programmed cell death, necrosis=cell death by tissue damage 3. Teleomeres are special DNA sequences located at the ends of chromosomes 4. DNA sequence ATC = RNA sequence UAG 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. E isotonic soln. 9. C 10.

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Steps of protein synthesis: 1) attachment of RNA polymerase 2) transcription 3) detachment of RNA polymerase 4)modification on newly synthesized mRNA by snRNPs before leaving the nucleus and entering the cytoplasm 5)binding of mRNA to a ribosomal small sub-unit 6)binding of initiator tRNA to start codon on mRNA 7)joining of large and small ribosomal subunits to make a functioning ribosome 8) attachment of specific aa’s to tRNA 9)binding of anticodons of tRNA to codons of mRNA 10) aa’s joined together by peptise bonds 11) detachment of protein from ribosome when ribosome reaches the stop codon 11.

Organelles that function in decomposition reactions: lysosomes, peroxisomes, proteosomes 12. C 13. 2, 3, 5, 7, 6, 8, 1, 4 14. 2, 9, 3, 5, 11, 8, 1, 6, 10, 7, 13, 4, 12 15. 3, 9, 1, 5, 11, 4, 8, 7, 2, 10, 6 Chapter 4 1. Epithelium, nervous, muscle, connective 2. Shape and number of layers 3. True 4. True 5. Skeletal is voluntarily controlled 6. Stratified squamous epithelium is Avascular 7. Goblet cells produce and release mucous 8. Cartilage is avascular, so it takes in fluids from surrounding tissues 9.

Serous membrane covering the lungs= pleura 10. Exocytosis = merocrine gland 11. D 12. Gap junctions allow cwlls to communicate with each other 13. 4, 8, 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 7 14. C, E, N, E, C, E, M, E, C, M, N, E, C, E, N 15. 3, 5, 8, 13, 9, 7, 11, 6, 2, 4, 10, 12, 1 Chapter 5 Studied this topic way too much when I worked in a tanning salon 1. Stratum lucidum 2. Eccrine sweat glands= most common, watery; ceruminous glands = ear; apocrine sweat glands = located axilla, groin, areolae, secrete viscous lipid-rich fluid 3. False 4. True 5.

Stratum basale = where stem cells are located, mitoses occurs 6. I already know all of this stuff, so I’ll stop here Chapter 6 1. Bone growth in length: interstitial growth. Bone growth in width: appositional 2. Crystallized inorganic mineral salts contributes to bone’s hardness. Tensile Strength is a combination of collagen and organic molecules. 3. Bone resorption involves increased activities of osteoclasts. T 4. Bone formation from cartilage is known as endochondral ossification. T 5. Bone growth is controlled primarily by hormones. T 6.

Intramembranous ossification steps: d 1)clusters of osteoblasts form a center that secretes ecm 2)ecm hardens by deposition of Ca and mineral salts 3)bony matrices fuse to form trabeculae 4) periosteum develops 5) compact bone replaces spongy bone on the surface 7. Endochondral ossification steps: a 1) chondrocytes enlarge and calcify 2) nutrient artery invades the perichondrium 3) primary ossification center: osteoblasts activated 4) osteoclasts join the party and form the marrow cavity 5) secondary ossification center activated at epiphysis 8.

Spongy bone differs from compact bone: it has trabeculae 9. Weight bearing exercise “maintains and increases” bone mass 10. Bone repair steps: 1)hematoma 2)migration of fibroblasts to fx site 3)fibrocartilaginous callus formation 4) bony callus formation 5)resorption of remaining bone fragments and remodeling 11. Zones at epiphyseal plate: 1) resting cartilage 2) proliferation 3) hypertrophic 4)calcified 12. 3,9,8,1,5,4,6,7,12,2,11,10 13. 2. 6. 4. 5. 7. 3. 1. 14. 12,4,8,6,3,9,13,10,7,5,2,11,1 15. ,7,6,1,4,,2,5,9,8,10 CHAPTER 7 Great chapter about the skeletal system learned alot 1. Membrane-filled spaces in the fetal skull : fontanels 2. Sphenoid bone-> sella turcica-> hypophyseal fossa-> contains the pituitary gland 3. Fused vertebrae of the vertebral column : sacrum and coccyx 4. The atlanto-occipital joint allows you to nod your head “yes” 5. Ribs that are not attached to the sternum are true ribs. False 6. In which of the following bones are the paranasal sinuses not found. Lacrimal 7.

Which of the following pairs are mismatched: sacrum: supports the lower back 8. Which of the following bones are not paired: vomer 9. Suture between the parietal and temporal bones: squamous suture 10. The primary vertebral curves present at birth: sacral curve and thoracic curve 11. Which of the following are f unctions of cranial bones? (All) protection of the brain, attachment of muscles that move the head, protection of the special sense organs, attachment of the meninges, attachment of muscles that produce facial expressions 12.

Match the following. Crest: prominent ridge or elongated projection, meatus: tubelike opening, condyle: large round protuberance at end of a bone, facet: smooth flat articular surface, spinous process: sharp slender projection, foramen: opening for passage of nerves blood vessels or ligaments, tuberosity: large rounded dough projection, fossa: shallow depression, fissure: narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones for passage of blood vessels or nerves 13. Match the following.

Supraorbital foramen-frontal bone; temporalmandibular joint- articulation of mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone to the mandible; external auditory meatus- temporal bone; foramen magnum- occipital bone; optic foramen- sphenoid bone; cribriform plate- ethmoid bone; palatine process- maxillae; ramus- mandible; transverse foramen, bifid spinous process- cerviacal vertebrae; dens- axis; promontory- sacrum; costal cartilages- ribs; xiphoid process- sternum 14. 2,3,5,6,4,1,5,4,2,4,3 15. Match the following. Frontal bone-forms the forehead. emporal bones- form the interior aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor, medial wall of the orbits, superior portions of nasal septum, most of the side walls of the nasal cavity, and is a major supporting structure of the nasal cavity. Zygomatic bones- form the prominence of the cheek and part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit. Mandible- the largest, strongest facial bone and is the only movable skull bone. Vomer- a roughly triangular bone on the floor of the nasal cavity, and one of the components of the nasal septum.

Parietal bones- form greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity. Occipital bone- forms the posterior part and most of the base of the cranium and contains the foramen magnum. Sphenoid bone- called the keystone of the cranial floor, contains the sella turcica, optic foramen and pterygoid processes. Nasal bone- forms the bridge of the nose. Lacrimal bones- the smallest bones of the face, contain a vertical groove that houses a structure that gathers tears and passes them on to the nasal cavity. Hyoid bone- does not articulate with any other bone.

Maxillae- unite to form upper jaw bone and articulate with every bone of the face except the mandible. Palatine bones- form the posterior part of the hard palate, part of the floor and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and a small of the floors of the orbits. Inferior nasal concha- scroll like bones that form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and functions in the turbulent circulation and filtration of air. CHAPTER 8 I already know most of this stuff 1. The bones that comprise the palm are the metacarpals. 2. The three bones that comprise the hip bones are ilium, ischium, and pubis 3.

The true pelvis is the part inferior to the pelvic brim, the false pelvis is superior to the brim 4. The largest carpal bone is the lunate. FALSE,( the largest bone is the capitate 5. The anterior joint formed by the two coxal bones is the pubic symphysis. TRUE 6. Which is true? Only 2… although the joints of the pectoral girdle are not very stable, they allow free movement in many directions 7. True concerning the elbow joint: 1) when the forearm is extended the olecranon fossa receives the olecranon process. 3) the head of the radius articulates with the capitulum. ) the trochlea articulates with the trochlear notch and 5) the head of the ulna articulates with the ulnar notch of the radius. 8. The most superior tarsal that articulates with the tibia is the TALUS 9. Which is not true concerning the scapula? 2) The scapular notch accommodates the head of the humerus and 3) the scapula is also known as the collar bone 10. A decrease in the height of the medial longitunidal arch causes a consition known as clubfoot. FALSE 11. Which of the following are involved in the knee joint?

B) lateral condyle of the tibia and e) medial condyle of the femur (the fibula does not articulate in the knee joint) 12. The greater sciatic notch is located in the ilium 13. Matching: 2,6,9,7,4,5,8,10,1,3 Chapter 9 working in orthopedics, I didn’t have to type out all the answers in detail here 1. Joint 2. Arthroplasty 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. Cartilaginous, synovial, fibirous 7. Gomphosis and suture 8. Osteoarthritis 9. Elevation and depression 10. Absorb shock at joints, lubricate joints, supply O2, provide phagocytes to remove debris from joints 11. 2,3,and4 12.

All of the answers are correct 13. Suture, syndesmosis, gomphosis, synchrodrosis, symphysis, syntosis 14. Pivot joint, planar joint, condyloid joint, hinge joint, ball and socket joint, saddle joint Chapter 10 I used to work in a health club as an aerobics instructor 1. Motor unit 2. Atrophy 3. Acetylcholine 4. True 5. True 6. Latent period- brief delay between stimulus and contraction 7. Mismatched- titin 8. Thick filaments slide inward toward the M-line : is incorrect 9. If sarcomeres shorten, tension increases : is not true 10. Creatine phosphate, glycolysis, anaerobic, aerobic 11.

The myosin heads would be unable to detach from actin 12. 5,6,9,7,2,4,10,3,1,8 13. 7,10,9,12,8,11,6,1,2,3,4,13,5 14. 2,3,1,1 and 2, 3,2,1,3,1 and 2, 3, 2 and 3, 3 Chapter 11 this is a chapter I need to learn about 1. The major muscle of the cheek is the buccinators 2. the three superficial posterior plantar flexors of the leg are the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris 3. True: longer fibers in a muscle result in greater range of motion. 4. True: when flexing the forearm, the biceps brachii acts as the prime mover and the triceps acts as the antagonist. 5. The gracilis muscle does not flex the thigh . The iliotibial tract is composed of the tendon of the gluteus maximus, the deep fascia that encircles the thigh, and the tendon of the tensor fascia latae 7. In order for movement to occur: 1) muscles generally need to cross a joint, 3) muscles that move a body part cannot cover the body part, and 4) muscles need to exert force on the tendons that pull on the bones 8. Muscle that aids in “pouting”: mentalis 9. The rectus femoris has fascicles arranged on both sides of a centrally positioned tendon, this Is known as bipennate 10. Which name is mismatched?

E) serratus anterior: comblike muscle located on the anterior surface of the body 11. Fixator: muscle that stabilizes the origin of the prime mover. Antagonist: muscle that stretches to allow desired motion. Synergist: muscle that contracts to stabilize intermediate joints. Compartment: group of muscles, along with their blood and nerves, that have a common function. Prime mover (agonist): contracting muscle that produces the desired motion. 12. 13,9,8,6,3,11,10,1,2,7,12,4,5 13. Quadriceps femoris muscle: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius. Hamstrings: biceps femoris, semitendonosus, semimembranosus.

Largest muscle mass of the back: erector spinae, includes spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis groups. Intrinsic muscle groups of the hands: thenar, hypoothenar, intermediate. Constitute flexor compartment of the arm: biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis. Swimmer’s muscle: latissimus dorsi. Muscles that strengthen and stabilize the shoulder joint (rotator cuff): subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor. Breathing muscles: diaphragm, external and internal intercostals. Posterior thoracic muscles: trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor. 14.

Muscle of facial expression: orbicularis oculi, zygomaticus major. Muscle of mastication: masseter, temporalis. Muscle that moves the eyeball: superior rectus. Extrinsic muscle that moves the tongue: styloglossus. Supra hyoid muscle: digastrics. Muscle of the perineum: external anal sphincter. Muscle that moves the head: sternocleidomastoid. Abdominal wall muscle: rectus abdominus, external oblique. Pelvic floor muscle: levator ani. Pectoral girdle muscle: trapezius. Muscle that moves the humerus: deltois, latissimus dorsi. Muscle that moves the radius and ulna: triceps brachii, pronater teres.

Muscle that moves the wrist hands and digits: flexor carpi radialis. Muscle that moves the vertebral column: iliocostalis thoracis. Muscle that moves the femur: gluteus maximus. Muscle that acts on the femur, tibia and fibula: quadriceps femoris. Muscle that moves the foot and toes: tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius. 15. Third class lever: most common in the body, eg: adduction of the thigh, FEL. Second class lever: always produces a mechanical advantage, produce the most force, FLE. First class lever: lever formed by the head resting on the neck, EFL. CHAPTER 12 1.

The subdivisions of the PNS are somatic, autonomic and enteric. 2. The two divisions on the autonomic nervous system are sympathetic and parasympathetic. 3. False: at a chemical synapse between two neurons, the neuron receiving the signal is called the presynaptic neuron, and the neuron sending the signal is called the post synaptic neuron. 4. False: neurons in the PNS are always capable of repair while those in the CNS are not. 5. Which statements are true? 1) the sensory function of the nervous system involves sensory receptors sensing certain changes in the internal and external environments. ) sensory neurons receive electrical signals from sensory receptors. 3) the integrative function of the nervous system involves analyzing sensory information, storing some of it, and making decisions regarding appropriate responses. 5) motor function involves the activation of effextors (muscle and glands). 6. A neurons resting membrane potential is established and maintained by 3) differences in both ion concentrations and electrical gradients, 4) the fact that there are numerous large, nondiffusible anions in the cytosol, and 5) Na-K pumps that help maintain the proper distribution of Na and K. . Correct order of the events in a chemical synapse: 2) arrival of a nerve impulse at the pre-synaptic neurons synaptic end bulb (or varicosity) 4)inward flow of Ca through activatedvoltage-gated Ca channels in the synaptic end bulb membrane 5) exocytosis of synaptic vesicles 1) release of neurotransmitters into synaptic cleft 7) binding of neurotransmitters to receptors in the postsynaptic neurons plasma membrane 6) opening of ligand gated channels on the post synaptic membrane 3) either depolarization or hyperpolarization of post synaptic membrane 8.

Several neurons in the brain sending impulses to a single motor neuron that terminates at the NMJ is an example of a converging circuit. 9. Which of the following are true? 1) if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than the threshold of stimulation, the result is a subthreshold EPSP. ) if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitiory effect and reaches or surpasses the threshold level of stimulation, the result is a threshold or suprathreshold ESPS and one or more nerve impulses 3) if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory effect, the membrane hyperpolarizes, resulting in inhibition of the postsynaptic neuron and the inability of the neuron to generate an impulse. 0. Which of the following are true? 2) ion channels allow for the development of graded potentials and action potentials 3) voltage gated channels open in response to changes in membrane potential 4) ligand gated channels open due to the presence of specific chemicals 5) a graded potential is useful for communication over long distances 11. Which of the following are true? ) The frequency of impulses and number of activated sensory neurons encodes differences in stimuli intensity 2) larger-diameter axons conduct nerve impulses faster than smaller diameter ones. 4) the presence or absence of a myelin sheath is an important factor that determines the speed of nerve impulse propagation 12. Neurotransmitters are removed from the synaptic cleft by 2) diffusion away from the cleft, 4) enzymatic breakdown, and 5) cellular uptake 13. )Astrocytes: maintain the chemical environment 2) oligodendrocytes: provide myelin sheath 3) ganglia: cluster of cell bodies located outside the brain and spinal cord 4) ependymal cells: form CSF and assist in circulation 5) satellite cells: support neurons in PNS ganglia 6) gray matter: contain mostly cell bodies 7) white matter: contain mostly myelinated axons 8) enteric plexus: extensive neuronal networks that help regulate the digestive system 9) microglia: small phagocytic neuroglia 10) Schwann cells: provide myelin sheath for PNS axons 11) nucleus: a cluster of cell bodies within the CNS 12) nerve: bundles of axons and associated connective tissue and blood vessels in the PNS 13) multipolar neuron: neurons having several dendrites and one axon, most common 14) bipolar neuron: neurons witih one main axon and one axon, found in the retina of the eye 15) unipolar neuron: neurons with just one process extending from the cell body, are always sensory, located in PNS 14. 1) Action potential: a sequence of rapidly occurring events that decreases and eventually reverses the membrane potential and then restores it to the resting state (a nerve impulse) 2) graded potential: a small deviation from the resting membrane potential that makes the membrane either more or less polarized. ) IPSP: hyper-polarization of the post-synaptic membrane 4) EPSP: depolarization of the post-synaptic membrane 5) absolute refractory period: time where there cannot be another action potential, even with a strong stimulus 6) relative refractory period: an action potential can only occur with a very strong stimulus 7) spatial summation: results from the buildup of nt released simultaneously from several pre-synaptic bulbs 8) temporal summation: results from buildup of nt from the rapid, successive release by a single pre-synaptic end bulb 9)depolarizing graded potential: polarization is less negative than the resting level 10) hyperpolarizing graded potential: polarization is more negative than the resting level 15. ) neurolemma: the outer nucleated cytoplasmic layer of the Schwann cell 2) Nodes of Ranvier: gaps in the myelin sheath of the axon 3) Nissl bodies: rough ER in neurons, site of protein synthesis 4) neurofibrils: form the cytoskeleton of the neuron 5) axon hillock: area where the axon joins the cell body 6) initial segment: first portion of the axon, closest to the axon hillock 7) trigger zone: area where nerve impulses arise Chapter 13 THE SPINAL CORD AND SPINAL NERVES 1. Spinal nerves are considered mixed nerves 2. Reflec arc: sensory receptor—sensory neuron—integration center—motor neuron—effector 3. T 4. F 5. True statements: stretch reflex helps maintain muscle tone, the Achilles reflex is an example of a stretch reflex, spinal nerves T2-T12 do not enter into the formation of a plexus 6.

Sensory receptor is activated by stimulus-sensory neuron relays info to spinal cordimpulse travels through dorsal root of spinal nerveintegration centers interpret sensory impulses and then generate motor I mpulsesimpulses travel through ventral root of spinal nervemotor impulse reaches muscle, causing withdrawal of affected limb 7. Endoneurium surrounds each individual axon 8. Tracts of the posterior column are 1)conscious proprioception, 2)touch, 3)pressure, 4)vibration 9. Lateral corticospinal is a motor tract 10. Interfere with the flow of sensory impulses 11. False statement: the two main spinal cord sensory pathways are spinothalamic and anterior columns 12. True: anterior grey horns contain cell bodies that cause muscle contraction, cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons are located in the lateral grey horns, gray matter in the spinal cord consists of cell bodies, neuroglia, unmylelinated axons, dendrites of interneurons and motor neurons 13.

A) stretch reflex b) muscle spindles monitor changes in muscle length c)crossed extensor reflex helps maintain balance d)tendon reflex causes muscle relaxation when the force becomes too extreme e)monosynaptic reflex involves one sensory and one motor neuron g) contralateral reflex arc sensory impulse enters one side and motor impulse exits the other side h) intersegmental reflex arc occurs when the sensory impulse travels up and down the spinal cord thereby activation several motor neurons and more than one effector o) reciprocal innervations 14. Plexus- the joining together of the rami of adjacent nerves. Cervical enlargement- area of cord that serves the upper limbs. Lumbar enlargement- serves the lower limbs. Central canal- space filled with CSF.

Denticulate ligaments- extending the length of the spinal cord, these pia mater thickenings, fuse with the arachnoid mater and dura mater and help protect the s pinal cord from shock and sudden displacement. 15. Cervical plexus: C1-C4, and some of C5, phrenic nerve arises from this plexus, supplies the skin and muscles of the head and neck and superior part of the chest and shoulders, damage to this plexus can affect breathing. Brachial plexus: part of C5, C6-T1, median nerve arises from this plexus, supplies the shoulders and upper limbs. Lumbar plexus: L1-L4, femoral nerve, supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall, external genitals and part of the lower limbs.

Sacral Plexux: L4-S4, sciatic nerve, supplies the buttocks, perineum, and lower limbs. Coccygeal plexus: S4-S5, supplies a small area of skin in the coccygeal region. Chapter 14 THE BRAIN AND CRANIAL NERVES 1. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by the corpus callosum. 2. Five lobes of the brain are frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, and insula. 3. The longitudinal fissure separates the cerebrum into right and left halves 4. False: the brain stem c onsists of the medulla, pons, and the diencephalon 5. True: as you confidently answer questions, your brain is exhibiting beta waves 6. Regulation of the body temperature is not a function of the thalamus. 7.

False: an interruption of blood flow to the brain for even 20 seconds may impair brain function 8. Which ways does CSF contribute to homeostasis? Mechanical and chemical protection, and circulation 9. Functions of the hypothalamus: 1) production of hormones oxytocin and ADH 2) regulation of emotional and behavior patterns, 3) control of the ANS 4) regulation of eating and drinking 5) control of body temperature 6) regulation of circadian rhythms 10. False: the internal capsule is an example of a commissural tract (eg. The corpus callosum in is a commissural tract) 11. True: hemispheric lateralization is more pronounced in males than in females 12. Cranial nerves: I-olfactory, sensory, smell. II-optic, sensory.

III-occulomotor, motor, intrinsic eye muscles. IV-trochlear, motor, superior oblique muscle, only nerve that initiates dorsally. V-trigeminal, mixed, functions in chewing. VI-abducens, motor, lateral rectus muscle of the eye, originates from the pons. VII- facial, mixed, facial expressions, secretion of saliva and tears. VIII- vestibulocochlear, sensory, hearing and equilibrium. IX-glossopharyngeal, mixed, secretion of saliva, taste, regulation of blood pressure, and muscle sense. X-vagus, mixed, secretion of digestive fluids, and much more. XI-accessory, motor, swallowing and head movements. XII-hypoglossal, functions during speech and swallowing. 13.

Limbic system- emotional brain, involved in olfaction and memory. Pons- bridges connecting parts of the brain, site of pneumotaxic and apneustic areas. Thalamus- sensory relay area, plays an essential role in awareness and in acquisition of knowledge and cognition. Reticular formation- alerts the cerebral cortex of incoming messages. Circumventricular organs- lack a blood brain barrier, monitor chemical changes in the blood. Medulla oblongata- site of decussation of pyramids. Pineal gland- secretes melatonin. Reticular Activation System- responsible for maintaining consciousness and awakening from sleep. Hypothalamus- regulates the ANS, produces hormones that regulate endocrine function.

Midbrain- contains reflex centers for movements of the eyes head and neck in response to visual and other stimuli, and reflex center for movements of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli. Basal Ganglia- several groups of nuclei that control large autonomic movements of skeletal muscles and help regulate muscle tone required for specific body movements. 14. Gyri- folds in the cerebral cortex. Internal capsule- a thick band of sensory and motor tracts that connect the cerebral cortex with the brain stem and spinal cord. Mammillary bodies- located in the hypothalamus, relay station for reflexes related to smell. Tentorium cerebella- dura mater extention that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum. Pyramids- protrusions in the medulla formed by the large corticospinal tracts.

Falx cerebella- dura mater extension that separates the two sides of the cerebellum. Septum pellucidum- thin membranous partition between the lateral ventricles. Cerebellar peduncles- bundles of white matter (axons) that relay info between the cerebellum and other parts of the brain. Falx cerebri- dura matter that separates the two sides of the cerebrum. Sulci- shallow grooves in the cerebral cortex. Arachnoid villi- finger like extensions that reabsorb CSF 15. Somatasensory association area- integration and interpretation of somatic sensations, comparison of past to present sensations. Visual association area- allows recognition and evaluation of visual experiences. Frontal eye field- involved in scanning eye movements.

Broca’s area- allows planning and production of speech. Auditory association area- allows for interpretation of sounds as speech, music, or noise. Premotor area- coordinates muscle movement for complex, learned sequential motor activities. Wernicke’s area- translates works into thoughts. Common integrative area- receives impulses from many sensory and association areas as well as the thalamus and brain stem, allows formation of thoughts so appropriate action can occur. Orbitofrontal cortex- allows you to discriminate among different odors Chapter 15 The AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM 1. Ach, epinephrine, NE 2. Thoracolumbar, craniosacral 3. True 4. True 5. False statement: d 6.

Autonomic plexus that supplies the large intestine: inferior and superior mesenteric 7. True statements: the somatic NS and the ANS both include sensory and motor neurons. The effect of an autonomic motor neuron is either excitation or inhibition, but that of somatic motor neuron is always excitation. Autonomic sensory neurons are mostly associated with interoceptors. Autonomic motor pathways consist of two motor neurons in series. 8. False statement: c 9. True statements: MAO breaks down NE. A beta blocker works by preventing activation of beta receptors by epinephrine and NE. Activation of nicotinic receptors always causes excitation of the post-synaptic cell. 10. Cholinergic neurons: all sympathetic preganglionic neurons, arasympathetic preganglionic neurons, all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, some sympathetic postganglionic neurons 11. All are true 12. 1,3,4 13. Receptor sensory neuron integrating center preganglionic neuron autonomic ganglion postganglionic neuron effector Chapter 16 SENSORY, MOTOR, AND INTEGRATIVE SYSTEMS 1. Sensation, perception 2. Dessucation 3. False 4. True 5. Lack of sensation could occur because 1)the stimulus was not in the receptive field, 2) the generator potentential did not reach its threshold, 3) there is damage to the somatosensory region of the cerebral cortex 6. C 7. Referred pain is pain felt in an area for away from the affected organ. Nociceptors exhibit very little adaptation. 8. B 9. D 10. E 11.

REM sleep: neuronal activity on the pons and midbrain is high, most somatic neurons is inhibited, most freaming occurs 12. False statement: a receptor potential generates nerve impulses in a second order neuron 13. Posterior column- composed of axons of first order neurons, include the gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus. Spinothalamic pathway – carries impulses for pain, temperature, tickling, and itching. Spinocerebellar tracts- major routes relaying proprioceptive input to the cerebellum, critical for posture, balance and coordination. Lateral corticospinal tracts- contains motor neurons that control skilled movements of hands and feet.

Anterior corticospinal tract- contain motor neurons that coordinate movements of the axial skeleton. Corticobulbar tracts- contains axons that convey impulses for precise, voluntary movements of the eyes tongue and neck, plus chewing, facial expression, and speech. Pyramidal pathways- direct pathways conveying impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord that result in precise voluntary movements. Extrapyramidal pathways- tracts include rubrospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal, lateral reticulospinal, and medial reticulospinal. Primary motor area- located in the pre-central gyrus, the major control region of the cerebral cortex for initiation of voluntary movements.

Basal Ganglia- contain neurons that help initiate and terminate movements, can suppress unwanted movements, and influence muscle tone. Trigeminothalamic pathway- carries impulses for most somatic sensations from the face, nasal cavity, oral cavity and teeth. 14. Exteroceptors receptors located near or at the external surface of the body. Interoceptors receptors located in blood vessels, visceral organs, muscles and nervous system. Proprioceptors receptors located in muscles, tendons and joints, and inner ear, that provide information about body position, muscle tension, and position and activity of joints. 15. Merkel discs type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors that function in touch.

Ruffini corpsucles type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors, most sensitive to stretching that occurs as digits or limbs move Chapter 17 The Special Senses 1. The five senses are sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami (MSG) 2. Static equilibrium refers to the maintenance of the position of the body relative to the force of gravity: Dynamic equilibrium refers to the maintenance of body position in response to rotational acceleration or deceleration. 3. True: of all special senses, only smell and taste sensations project both higher cortical areas and limbic system. 4. False: the ability to change the curvature of the lens for near vision is convergence. 5.

True statements: 1) the sites of olfactory transduction are olfactory hairs 3) the axons of olfactory receptors pass through the olfactory foramina in the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. 5) within the olfactory bulbs, the first order neurons synapse with second order neurons. 6. The false statement: Olfactory receptors respond to the chemical stimulation of an odorant molecule by producing a receptor potential. 7. The incorrect statement: the threshold for bitter substances is the highest. 8. When viewing an object close to the eyes, the following are required for proper formation on the retina: 1) increased curvature of the lens, 2) contraction of the ciliary muscle 4) refraction of light at the anterior and posterior surfaces of the cornea 9. Which is ismatched: filiform papillae – contain tastebuds in early childhood 10. Order of the visual pathway: cornea — aqueous humor —- pupil —- lens —- vitreous body —- photoreceptors —- bipolar cells —- ganglion cells —- optic nerve —- optic chiasm —- optic tract —- thalamus —- visual cortex 11. Incorrect statement : retinal is a derivative of vitamin C 12. Order of the auditory pathway: external auditory canal —- tympanic membrane —- Auditory ossicles —- oval window —- cochlea —- spiral organ 13. 1) palpebrae- upper and lower eyelids, shade the eyes during sleep and spread lubricating secretions over the eyeball. ) tarsal or Meibomian glands, modified sebaceous glands, secretion help keep eyelids from adhering to one another 3) conjunctiva, membrane that lines the inner aspect of the eye, passes from the eyelids to the sclera 4) eyelashes, protect eyeballs from debris, perspiration, and direct rays from the sun 5) lacrimal apparatus, produces and drains tears 6) extrinsic eye muscles, move the eyeballs medially, laterally, superior and inferior 7) eyebrows, arch transversely above the eyes, help protect similar to that of eyelashes 8) tarsal plate, thick fold of connective tissue that gives form and support to the eyelids 14. 3,6,9,14,1,5,10,13,7,15,2,11,12,4,8 15. 2,11,14,13,3,10, 6, 12,4,5,9,1,7,8

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